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[personal profile] venta
So, sums. I can, broadly speaking, do sums. I have a degree in maths.

However, interest rate calculations have always baffled me. Sure, if you ask me to calculate 3 months compound interest at a monthly rate of x% I know what to do. However, when it comes to real examples of mortgages and credit cards, I can't work out what the sum I need to do is. I'm still slightly baffled about the interest charged me when I was a day late paying my credit card off in full in March.

Today, the BBC carried a story about a loanshark. It includes the following statement about someone who borrowed £1000:

"...to pay £49 a week over 60 weeks, making the total amount he had to
repay £2,940 at 917% APR."

Now, if we approximate 60 weeks to a year, then surely that's an annual interest rate of no more than 294%. The quoted APR isn't even in vaguely the right ballpark.

So... have I completely failed to understand APR ? (Wikipedia's page on the subject didn't really help with the definition.) Or is the BBC publishing unmitigated wank in the name of investigative journalism ?

Edit It turns out I'd failed to understand APR, and the BBC is cleared in this instance.

Date: 2008-08-04 09:33 am (UTC)
From: [identity profile] imc.livejournal.com
x is 1/(1+i), where i is interest. So it represents the depreciation of your capital due to interest: xc is the amount of money you must have borrowed last week if c is the amount of money you owe this week.

My working is as follows. There is a recurrence relation relating the amount you owe this week after a repayment to the amount you owed last week:

cn+1 = cn(1+i) – r

Eliminating the recursion gives this:

cn = c0(1+i)nr(1+i)n-1 – … – r(1+i) – r

where the right-hand side is a geometric series which can be simplified thusly:

cn = c0(1+i)nr((1+i)n–1)/i .

So the repayment r in terms of the initial amount of credit c and interest rate (per week) i is:

r = cik/(k–1) where k = (1+i)n .

Now presumably they've done their recurrence relation the other way about and ended up with

c = rx(xn–1)/(x–1) where x = 1/(1+i)

but the two formulae are equivalent, it turns out.

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